With solely them weak at matchpoints, my left hand opponent, West, dealt and opened two spades (weak). Two passes adopted, and I doubled (takeout) with the next:
♠4 ♡jT8542 ♢AK5 ♣ AK3. Associate handed for penalties, and led the jack of diamonds. Dummy got here down with ♠J7 ♡AK7 ♢Q98654 ♣ 94.
I took the A of diamonds, AK of golf equipment, Okay of diamonds (noting that each declarer and accomplice have been out) after which led my singleton spade. I used to be “stretching” a rule I had been taught to steer trumps on the first clear alternative when accomplice converts a takeout double right into a penalty double.
Associate really had solely AT32 of spades, and we set the contract 1 for a median minus rating. She had anticipated a diamond return and a ruffing alternative no later than the fifth trick. She hoped that I’d play A of golf equipment as a sign, return the diamond, and supply her two ruffing probabilities when she led again to the king.
I instructed her that I anticipated a stronger spade go well with for a penalty cross, one thing like AJTxx, (AQxxx with the J within the dummy), and that eliminating dummy’s trumps was excessive on my precedence record. To me, a penalty cross means “my trumps are a minimum of as sturdy as declarsr’s. You deal with the aspect fits.” She did not purchase that argument and we chalked it as much as a misunderstanding.
Was my trump lead right assuming that accomplice had AQxxx or higher. And was it right underneath the precise circumstances?
